Romans 10:20-21

‘And Isaiah is very bold, and says, “I was found of those who did not seek me, I became manifest to those who did not ask of me.” But as to Israel he says, “All the day long did I spread out my hands to a disobedient and gainsaying people.” '

Paul then summarises the situation as described above by two authoritative Scripture statements (seen as providing Scriptural authority because they are introduced by ‘Isaiah -- says'). The first declares that those who found God (the believing Jews, who were mainly from the despised element of Israel, together with the Gentiles) would not be those who sought Him (that is, the unbelieving Jews who prided themselves on seeking God), and that those who had God made manifest (openly shown) to them would be those who did not ask anything of Him (thus not the unbelieving Jews who asked for and expected a great deal).

The second is specifically referred to Israel and declares that God has long been holding out His hand ‘to a disobedient and gainsaying people', in other words to the unbelieving Jews. The response of Israel to God's compassion and mercy was that the Jews continued in opposition to Him, being both disobedient (they did not have the obedience of faith - Romans 1:5), and obstinate (constantly speaking against Him). So we have in this verse both a manifestation of the grace of God in holding out His hands to an unbelieving people, and a description of the meanness of spirit that causes them to reject Him. Israel is seen to be without excuse and therefore as awaiting the judgment of God.

(The fact that Paul here deals with believing Jews and Gentiles in Romans 10:20, and then with unbelieving Jews in Romans 10:21, confirms the idea that the two questions in Romans 10:18 do the same, as we have suggested there).

Note: Which Verses In Romans 10:14 Refer To The Gentiles And Believing Jews And Which To Unbelieving Jews?

We have expounded our own view of these verses, but there is in fact much dispute on this question. Some see almost the whole argument as written to condemn the Jews for rejecting the Messiah. The word went out to them through God's messengers (14-15). They had heard but they did not listen (Romans 10:16). The word went out to every nation under Heaven (Romans 10:18), where there were patently Jews (Acts 2:5). But the Jews still did not respond, even though they knew what God had promised (Romans 10:19). Thus even when the message was responded to by others, they were still disobedient and mulish in their response to God's gracious appeal (Romans 10:20).

Others argue, although not always agreeing in the details, for a division of the verses between unbelieving Jew on the one hand, and believing Jews and Gentiles on the other, in the latter case with believing Jews being included, for while they were now not being converted in large numbers in the way that they had been at the beginning, Jews were certainly still being converted, especially in the wider world. As will be noted we have argued this second position, and our view is based mainly on the context. We consider that the first suggestion both ignores the context in the previous verses, and ignores the clear markers that Paul puts down in referring to Israel only in Romans 10:19; Romans 10:21. For in Romans 10:11 it is made crystal clear that both believing Jews and Gentiles come within the sphere of God's mercy, so that ‘whoever calls on the Name of the Lord (YHWH) will be saved'. In other words the message is to go out to all. Unless, therefore, it was indicated otherwise we would expect what follows in Romans 10:14, describing the going out of the message, equally to apply to all. This makes Romans 10:14 refer to both open-minded Jews and Gentiles.

Furthermore in Romans 10:20 it is equally clear that Romans 10:20 applies to the Gentiles, and possibly also to the not so orthodox Jews, such as those who were despised by the Priests and the Scribes (whom Jesus was delighted to reach). On the other hand, Romans 10:21 clearly refers to the unbelieving Jews. And this is made crystal clear by the words, ‘but as to Israel' in Romans 10:21.

Following on from this we can see a pattern emerging, with Paul first dealing with the question of Gentiles and believing Jews, and then dealing with the question of unbelieving Jews. But can this be applied to intervening verses? As we have seen Romans 10:14 have in mind those who heard and believed. In Romans 10:16 we have reference to those who did not believe, therefore having the unbelieving Jews in mind. In Romans 10:19 we are asked ‘did Israel not hear?' Thus that verse clearly refers to the Jews. Comparison with the way that Romans 10:20 are divided between Gentiles on the one hand and Jews on the other, and that by a reference to Israel in Romans 10:21, might then suggest that the same applies to Romans 10:18, with Romans 10:18 referring to believing Gentiles and believing Jews, and Romans 10:19, with its clear reference to ‘Israel', referring to unbelieving Jews. We would then have the following pattern:

· Romans 10:14 refer to believing Gentiles and believing Jews, Romans 10:16 refers to unbelieving Jews (those who have not believed the report).

· Romans 10:18 refers to believing Gentiles and Jews, whilst Romans 10:19 refers to unbelieving Jews.

· Romans 10:20 refers to believing Gentiles and Jews, whilst Romans 10:21 refers to unbelieving Jews.

This pattern brings order out of uncertainty, and as we have seen in the exegesis there are good grounds for seeing these designations as being correct.

End of note.

So Paul has once again emphasised that the fact that the Good news has gone out to the Gentiles and has been accepted, has been prophesied in Scripture, whilst the failure of the majority of Israel to respond to their Messiah and find salvation through Him, due to their unbelief, has also been clearly prophesied in Scripture, thus demonstrating that the failure of the Jews to repent was not something that brought the Scriptures into question (Romans 9:6), but rather wholly confirmed them.