Because it is a trial Or, for there is a trial. So accented the word occurs again Isaiah 28:16, a stone of trial (tried stone). The word might be read as a verb: for trial has been made. In any case reference is not to the "sword" nor the Babylonian conqueror who wields it, as if the meaning were: trial has been made of what it or he can do! Such a sense has no probability. The word must refer to those on whom the calamity is to fall.

and what if … be nomore] The same difficulties recur here as in Ezekiel 21:10, and the translation will follow that adopted there. Ew., "for it has been tried and what? is it also a soft rod? that will not be, saith" &c.; i.e. the rod (the sword) has been tried, and it will be found no soft one. This is wholly improbable. Boett., "for (as to) trial, what (is to be effected) with that, when thou hast even contemned the rod?" (Aehrenlese, ii. p. 174.) Others (Hitz., Corn.) point the word "trial" differently, and read: for with kindness what (should I accomplish)? &c. which is quite destitute of probability. In spite of the grammatical harshness (cf. however Ezekiel 21:27) the construction followed in R.V. is perhaps the most probable: "for trial hath been made, and what if the sceptre (R. V. rod) that contemneth should be no more!" reference being to the royal house of Judah which shall perish, cf. Ezekiel 21:25; Ezekiel 21:29?

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