What I do thou knowest not Here both pronouns are emphatic and are opposed. Peter's question implied that he knew, while Christ did not know, what He was doing: Christ tells him that the very reverse of this is the fact. On -now" see note on John 16:31.

hereafter Literally, after these things(John 3:22; John 5:1; John 5:14; John 6:1; John 7:1; John 19:38). -Hereafter" conveys a wrong impression, as if it referred to the remote future. Had this been intended the words used for -now" and -afterwards" in John 13:36 would probably have been employed here. The reference probably is to the explanation of this symbolical action given in John 13:12. This seems clear from the opening words (John 13:12), - Knowye what I have done to you?" all the more so, because it is the same word for -know" as here for -thou shalt know" (ginôskein); whereas the Greek for -thou knowest" in this verse is a different and more general word (oidas): -what Iam doing, thouknowest not just now, but thou shalt recognise presently." See notes on John 7:26 and John 8:55.

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