Romans 7:6

But now we have been discharged from the law, having died to that wherein we were held; so that we serve in newness of the spirit, and not in oldness of the letter. "We have been discharged from the law" -true of both Jews and Gentiles, for the Gentiles had 'law' too. (Romans 2:14-15) Some have argued that since Christians are said to have 'died' to. law, this proves that the non-Christian isn't under the 'Law of Christ', and therefore not under such things as it's law concerning marriage. It is argued that the non-Christian dies to the "moral law" that he was under.

1. The Jew or Gentile that became. Christian wasn't released from the obligation to obey God's law, but rather was released from the demand of justification on the basis of law, i.e. flawlessness. Outside of Christ both Jew and Gentile had to perfectly obey in order to stay in favor with God. In Christ, they can remain in favor with God, even though they sin, because forgiveness is available to those that trust God. (Romans 4:6).

2. Being "in" the New Covenant and enjoying it's blessings (Hebrews 8:11) isn't the same thing as being "accountable to it". The non-Christian is "accountable" to the conditions for admission (Mark 16:15); he is accountable to it's moral demands (1 Corinthians 6:9; 1 Peter 4:3; Matthew 5:28); isn't he accountable to it's doctrinal demands? (Galatians 1:6. does the non-Christian sin when he teaches false doctrine or doesn't he?). Isn't he accountable to everything that Christ taught? Or does John 12:48 only apply to Christians that reject Christ?

3. In addition, the "law" that the Gentile was under prior to Christ, condemned his adultery also. (Leviticus 18:20; Leviticus 18:24)

McGuiggan makes an interesting comment: "The morality of the "Gentile" law (often called the "Universal Moral Law") is the morality of the Jewish law (Romans 2:14-15) (Leviticus 18:1 ff confirms this). The standing moral requirements of the Mosaic system (such as loving the Lord, refraining from adultery, etc..) are the same as those laid upon Christians (Romans 13:8)."

Those that argue that the non-Christian isn't under God's marriage law, are actually saying, 'The non-Christian isn't accountable to the same moral standard as the Christian'. If this is true in marriage, then what other 'moral requirements' is the non-Christian free from? Have we been wrong in preaching against the "sins" of the world (Ephesians 5:11)?

"so that we serve in newness of the spirit, and not in oldness of the letter" -"Under Law there had to be the utter fulfillment of everything (Galatians 3:12). In fact, the "Law" doesn't require "faith", it requires flawlessness (Galatians 3:12)

"Newness of the spirit..oldness of the letter" -this verse isn't teaching: (1) We don't have to obey commands now. (2) The O.T. contained written regulations and the New Testament doesn't. (3) The O.T. wasn't spiritual, for it was (Romans 7:14)

'Newness of the spirit' means that as. Christian. recognize that. can't perfectly obey,. must always trust in Christ for mercy upon my repentance.. realize that being released from the demand of "flawlessness" isn't an excuse to sin or treat the Law of God in. casual manner (2 Timothy 2:15),. press on, striving to serve God to the best of my ability (1 Peter 3:12), all the while humbly confessing my short-comings (1 John 1:8; James 5:16). 'Oldness of the letter' is seen in the Pharisees who had turned religion into nothing more than keeping rules, without remembering that trust, humility and such things are necessary also. (Matthew 23:23; Luke 18:9 ff)

THE DAWN OF CONSCIENCE-Romans 7:7-13