David therefore called him Lord,.... Or, "my Lord", as the Syriac and Ethiopic versions read; or, "his Lord", as the Arabic version. This is the inference from the words before cited

Psalms 110:1, upon which the following question is asked,

how is he then his son? how can these things be reconciled? in what sense can he be both his Lord and son?

Matthew 22:45.

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