Jeremiah 31:26

I put this verse by itself from the singularity of its contents. And while I propose my views of it, I pray the Reader to look up to the Lord as his teacher, to lead him, and to guide him into all truth. Is not this verse (for I ask the question) a new subject, a new paragraph, and a different speaker from the former? Who was it that is said here to have awaked? If we suppose it to be the blessed Jesus, may we not without violence to the expression conceive, that it refers to that period, when after the third day from our Lord's death, he arose from the dead! And when he arose, might he not be supposed to say, that the short sleep of that temporary death was sweet to him, because by it he destroyed the everlasting sleep of eternal death to all his people? By death he destroyed him that had the power of death: and now, as the glorious Head of his body, the Church, he felt a blessedness and a sweetness in it, because in his triumphs all his people were concerned. I leave the Reader to his own thoughts on the subject. May a gracious and infallible Teacher instruct both Writer and Reader on the point, to the glory of God in Jesus Christ, Hebrews 2:14; 1 Corinthians 15:20.